101. The DNA gel picture shown below depicts the PCR banding pattern of two markers (M1 and M2).
The linkage distance between the two markers from a test cross population is:
a. 4 cM
b. 6 cM
c. 8 cM
d. 10 cM
102. For metabolic engineering in plants having improved tolerance to osmotic stress, mannitol is overproduced because it:
a. lowers the water potential in the plant cell
b. increases the water potential in the plant cell
c. lowers membrane potential in the plant cell
d. increases membrane potential in the plant cell
103. For engineering virus resistance in plants, which one of the following viral components is commonly targeted?
a. coat protein
b. replication protein
c. satellite RNA
d. movement protein
104. The Bt protein employed for raising insect-resistant plants is not toxic to humans because:
a. it is inactive under acidic pH
b. it is inactive under basic pH
c. it is inactive at 37°C
d. it is rendered inactive by inhibitors
105. In rice, while pyramiding three genes for a trait, two donors were used. One donor carries two desirable genes, which are present on chromosome #2 and #4, while other donor has one desirable gene present on chromosome #3. Both the donors were crossed to produce a biparental F2 population. The theoretical expectations of an individual carrying all the desirable allele in homozygous condition is one out of:
106. An isoenzyme may be a monomer, dimer or multimer with identical or distinct subunits. Following picture depicts a native PAGE profile of the isoenzyme from a diploid plant (P1 – Parent 1, P2 – Parent 2, F1 – Progeny).
This isoenzyme is a:
107. Which one of the following sets is an example of specific sequence-based PCR analysis in marker assisted selection?
a. RAPD, DAF, AP-PCR
b. SCAR, SSR, COS
c. SCAR, SSR, DAF
d. RAPD, SSR, COS
108. Opaque2 gene in maize and Wx gene in rice affects the …………. and ……… content, respectively.
a. protein quality, amylose
b. oil, wax
c. protein quality, wax
d. oil, starch
109. Which one of the following is associated with RNA-induced gene silencing in plants?
a. DNA methylation
b. DNA acetylation
c. DNA degradation
d. DNA restriction
110. The oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle salvages:
a. C3 carbon
b. C4 carbon
d. C2 carbon
111. The term ‘co-suppression’ was coined by Richard Jorgensen to explain:
a. Patchy flower colour in petunia.
b. Resistance to viral infection in tobacco.
c. Production of white flowers in Ipomea.
d. Silencing of actin gene in C. elegans.
112. Which one of the following plants exhibits both C3 and C4 pathways?
a. Zea mays
b. Oryza sativa
c. Mesembryanthemum crystallinum
d. Arabidopsis thaliana
113.‘Dichogamy’ refers to a phenomenon in which anther dehiscence and stigma receptivity are:
a. temporally separated
b. spatially separated
c. temporally coinciding
d. spatially coinciding
114. Light compensation point is the irradiance at which:
a. net photosynthetic photon flux is zero.
b. there is no photosynthesis.
c. net CO2 exchange is zero.
d. quantum yield of photosynthesis is 1.
115. Fusicoccin promotes cotyledon growth by promoting:
a. cell division
b. cell wall biosynthesis
c. tonoplast acidification
d. cell wall acidification
116. Plants take up water from the soil predominantly by the apoplastic and symplastic modes of transport. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Apoplastic transport is ATP-dependent, symplastic is ATP-independent.
b. Symplastic transport is ATP- dependent, apoplastic is ATP-independent.
c. Both apoplastic and symplastic transport are ATP-dependent.
d. Both apoplastic and symplastic transport are ATP-independent.
117. Which one of the following is a Mo-Fe containing protein?
a. Nitrate reductase
c. Nitrite reductase
118. TIR1, an auxin receptor, is a:
a. F-box protein
b. MAP kinase
c. His kinase
d. Ser/Thr kinase
119. Phytochromes A and B maximally absorb light at wavelength range:
a. 150-300 nm
b. 300-450 nm
c. 450-550 nm
d. 600-750 nm
120. A researcher wants to ectopically express protein X exclusively in the seeds of Arabidopsis. Which one of the following promoters is most suitable for this purpose?
a. CaMV 35S
b. Maize ubiquitin
121. Given below are the names of different phytohormones in the left column. Match them with their corresponding precursor molecules in the right column.
Select the correct combination:
a. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
b. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
c. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
d. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
122. Which one of the following is a sulphur containing secondary metabolite in mustard plant derived from glucose and an amino acid?
d. Cyanogenic glycosides
123. Disarmed Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens does not result in crown gall phenotype since it does not possess:
a. ipt and iaaH genes
b. Vir D gene
c. Vir A gene
d. Vir G gene
124. A plant that survives a local pathogen infection, often develops increased resistance to a subsequent attack by a mechanism called:
a. Systemic Acquired Resistance
b. DAMP-triggered immunity
c. Hypersensitive response
d. Heat Shock Response
125. In genetically modified Dhara Mustard Hybrid – 11, male sterility is conferred by ………, while ………….. restores fertility.
a. barnase, barstar
b. barstar, barnase
c. bar, barnase
d. barnase, bar
126. Glycosylation of a monoclonal antibody DOES NOT affect:
a. in vivo stability of antibody
b. mediation of phagocytosis and cytotoxicity of antibody
c. efficacy of monoclonal antibody
d. fluorescence spectrum of antibody
127. Match the common antibody origin with appropriate generic name/brand name of the antibody
a. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
b. a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
c. a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
d. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
128. A recombinant therapeutic protein is intracellularly produced in soluble form using E. coli. Which one of the following sequences of chromatographic separation methods is preferable for obtaining clinical grade protein?
a. Hydrophobic interaction followed by ion-exchange
b. Dye-ligand followed by ion-exchange
c. Ion-exchange followed by gel-filtration
d. Gel-filtration followed by metal-affinity
129. What property is involved in the separation of a mixture of analytes using gas chromatography?
130. Which organization in India approves and gives regulatory clearance of biologicals?
a. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
b. National Institute of Biologicals (NIB)
c. Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)
d. Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
131. In a crossflow filtration process, if the volumetric flow rate of the feed is 10 times that of the retentate, the concentration factor is:
132. In a bioprocess, assume that only cell mass is formed. Due to a variation in process conditions, if the microbial cell yield has halved, what would be the rate of substrate consumption to maintain the same rate of cell mass production?
a. It would be doubled
b. It would be halved
c. It would be unchanged
d. It would increase four folds
133. In a chemostat, which one of the following would increase the exit cell concentration?
a. Increase in inlet substrate concentration
b. Increase in dilution rate
c. Increase in inoculum size
d. Increase in impeller size
134. The ratio of gassed to ungassed powder (Pg/P) in a bioreactor will be in the range of:
a. 0.4 – 0.9
b. 1.0 – 2.0
c. 1.2 – 2.4
d. 4.0 – 8.0
135. Scale up of a fermenter is done based on constant impeller tip speed. If the diameter of the impeller is increased by 10 fold, the agitator speed will:
a. decrease by 10 fold
b. decrease by 100 fold
c. increase by 10 fold
d. increase by 100 fold
136. For an enzyme catalyzed reaction in a batch bioreactor, which one of the following is true under quasi-steady state conditions:
a. Enzyme-substrate complex concentration remains nearly constant
b. Substrate concentration remains nearly constant
c. Product concentration remains nearly constant
d. Both substrate and product concentration remain nearly constant
137. In a batch reactor, which one of the following is true regarding specific growth rate?
a. It remains constant with time.
b. It continuously increases with time.
c. It continuously decreases with time.
d. It reaches a maximum in the exponential phase.
138. For a Rushton turbine impeller (Reynold’s number greater than 10,000) when RPM is doubled, the power absorption increases by:
a. 2 fold
b. 4 fold
c. 8 fold
d. 32 fold
139. Reynold’s number is ratio of:
a. viscous force to inertial force.
b. inertial force to viscous force.
c. gravitation force to inertial force.
d. inertial force to gravitational force.
140. In developing a structured model for microbial cell growth, we:
a. separate the population by age.
b. compartmentalize the cell into different components.
c. separate the cells by age and also compartmentalize it.
d. treat cells to be composed of a single component only.
141. Glycerol is a:
a. Newtonian fluid
b. Pseudoplastic fluid
c. Thixotropic fluid
d. Dilatant fluid
142. A catalyst:
a. Reduces the free energy change of the reaction
b. Increases the free energy change of the reaction
c. Reduces the activation energy of the reaction
d. Reduces the heat of reaction
143. If the pulse input response curve for a CSTR shows a long tail, it means:
a. Strong internal circulation in the reactor
b. Dead space in the reactor
c. Short circuiting in the reactor
d. Parallel flow in the reactor
144. During mixed acid fermentation by E. coli, which one of the following is NOT produced?
a) Lactic acid
c) Succinic acid
d) Citric acid
145. The maximum yield for microbial conversion of Glucose (C6H12O6) to ethanol (C2H5OH) on a mol/mol basis is approximately:
146. A substrate is consumed in a zero order reaction such that the concentration falls from 40 g/l to 20 g/l in 4 h. How long will it take the substrate to fall from 20 g/l to 2 g/l:
a. 2.5 h
b. 1.8 h
c. 3.6 h
d. 4.8 h
147. The least used heat transfer-design in bioreactor is:
b. Limpet coil
c. Internal cooling coil
d. External heat exchanger
148. The major drawback in using wild type S. cerevisiae for producing ethanol from biomass hydrolysate is:
a. Low biomass yield of hexose sugars
b. Presence of solid residues
c. Low concentration of sugars
d. Non utilization of Pentose sugars
149. Match the physical/chemical property with the corresponding unit operations used for separation:
a. a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii
b. a-i b-iii c-ii d-iv
c. a-iv b-ii c-iii d-i
d. a-iv b-iii c-i d-ii
150. One microgram of a pure enzyme (MW: 92,000) catalyzed a reaction at a rate of 0.50 µmoles/min under optimum conditions. The specific activity of the enzyme [(µmoles/min)/mg protein] is: