151. The ion transport that will be the most affected following mutation in Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene is:
152. The organism in which the luciferase gene is termed as “lux” gene is:
d. Jelly fishes
153. The first humanized monoclonal antibody approved by the US-FDA for targeted treatment of breast cancer was:
154. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to DNA vaccines?
a. No risk of infection
b. Proteins produced are likely to be correctly post translationally modified
c. It can persist for an extended time period in the cell
d. Introduced DNA stimulates a protective immune response
155. Antibiotic bleomycin is secreted by:
a. Bacillus sp.
b. Aspergillus sp.
c. Streptomyces sp.
d. Acremonium sp.
156. Zinc deficiency among children primarily results in the atrophy of:
c. Lymph nodes
d. Peyer’s patches
157. Antigen activated B cells differentiate into antibody producing plasma cells in:
a. Lymphoid follicles
b. Hassall’s corpuscles
c. Lamina propria
158. Allergenicity of a protein refers to its capacity to activate:
a. Mast cells
b. B cells
c. Dendritic cells
d. M cells
159. Secondary immune response to a hapten depends on the:
a. Hapten immunization alone
b. Carrier immunization alone
c. Both hapten and carrier used in the primary immunization
d. Hapten and is independent of the carrier used during immunization
160. Ig class specific antigenic determinants are known as:
a. Allotypic determinants
b. Isotypic determinants
c. Idiotypic determinants
d. Gm determinants
161. Isotypic determinants of the Ig molecule are located in the:
c. Constant region of HC and LC
d. Variable region of HC and LC
162. A chimeric organism is generated when:
a. Cells of different genetic constitution appear in the same organism
b. Union of two different genomes occur within a cell
c. A genome of another individual is injected into an adult organism
d. A part of the genome is inactivated by chromosomal rearrangement
163. Metaplasia represents:
a. Uncontrolled proliferation of cells initiated at the metaphase of cell cycle
b. Transformation of one differentiated cell type to another
c. Cell proliferation during metamorphosis
d. A measure of metabolic activity in hyperplastic cells
164. The taxonomic method of identifying an organism to its species is:
a. Genetic speciation
b. DNA barcoding
165. In Drosophila, the growth of legs on the head instead of antennae during development is an example of:
a. Homeotic transformation
b. Epigenetic modification
c. Chromosomal aberrations
166. Ameloblasts are differentiated cells:
a. that secrete amylase
b. of amygdala
c. of adrenal gland
d. that secrete enamel
167. Which one of the following contributes to the development of the reproductive tract in a male foetus?
a. Anti-diuretic hormone
c. Anti-Mullerian hormone
168. Neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is:
169. Viral vector that is ideal for expressing therapeutic gene in non-dividing cells is:
a. Lentiviral vector
b. Retroviral vector
c. Adeno-associated viral vector
d. Adenoviral vector
170. Which one of the following amino acids can be used as a diuretic because of its importance in metabolism of ammonia?
171. Paralytic shellfish poisoning is a foodborne illness that typically develops after consumption of shellfish contaminated chiefly with the heat stable and acid stable toxin:
a. Okadaic acid.
172. The antifreeze molecules that prevent intracellular ice formation in marine organisms are generally:
a. calcium salts.
c. membrane phospholipids.
d. long chain alcohols.
173. Which one of the following transgenes expressed in transgenic fish by an appropriate inducible promoter, may be used for detecting environmental toxicants?
a. Super oxide dismutase
b. Green Fluorescent Protein
c. Antimicrobial peptide
d. Aromatic hydrocarbon decarboxylase
174. Ballast water may be carried onboard by ships to maintain stability and improve maneuverability during transit. Introduction of which one of the following is regarded as the major threat in release of untreated ballast water?
a. pathogenic microbes.
b. terrestrial inputs of pollutants.
c. invasive marine species.
d. algal blooms.
175. Remote sensing of ocean-atmospheric parameters carried out in the microwave channels is based on the phenomenon of:
176. A starch containing wastewater sample with high BOD, CaCl2 and NH4NO3 was subjected to aerobic oxidation using a designed bacterial consortium. The oxidised product(s) will have:
a. Cl2, N2, O2, and CO2
b. Cl2, N2, and O2
c. O2 and CO2
177. A wastewater has BOD of 1500 mg/L and COD of 2400 mg/L. Assuming 80% treatment efficiency in an activated sludge bioreactor, the BOD/COD ratio of treated effluent will be:
178. A slaughter house waste was subjected to anaerobic digestion. If the operation conditions are mesophilic then the biogas will have only:
a. H2S, H2,CH4, and CO2.
b. H2S, CH4, and CO2.
c. CH4, and CO2.
179. A pilot plant treating organic waste in aerobic and continuous mode was running with a constant organic load. It was observed that after three days, the Dissolved Oxygen level had increased from 3mg/L to 4.5mg/L under the same operating conditions. This suggests that:
a. treatment system running efficiently
b. treatment system not running efficiently
c. treatment system not getting affected
d. activated biomass generating oxygen
180. An anaerobic flask containing 50 ml of media with glucose as the sole carbon source was inoculated with a consortium consisting of Methanosarcina and Bacillus. After two weeks of incubation, there will be:
a. no growth
b. growth with methane production
c. growth with acetate and methane production
d. growth with CO2 production
181. A representative sequence profile of a given nucleotide binding domain is to be used to mine related sequences from TrEMBL. The database to be used to extract the query corresponding to this fold is:
d. Gene Ontology
182. The figure represents a dot plot comparing two genomes X and Y. The portion marked N is a/an:
c. Repeat Sequence
d. Insertion or deletion (Indel)
183. Which one of the following methods is most accurate in rescoring docked ligandprotein complexes?
a. Molecular mechanics non-bonded energy functions
b. Binding free energy calculations incorporating solvation models
c. X-score – which is an independent score based on an energy function
d. Ensemble scoring of multiple docking algorithms
184. A reference set of molecules is experimentally assayed for xenobiotic toxicity using the MTS assay which is a colorimetric measurement of cell viability. As part of the lead optimization step in drug discovery, which one of the following steps can be used to predict the toxicity of a new set of compounds?
a. Estimation of log P values
b. Building a regression model of the reference compounds using molecular
descriptors and toxicity measures
c. Docking of molecules against an essential enzyme like DHFR
d. Building a classifier without molecular descriptors of the reference compounds
185. In a de novo RNASeq analysis, the typical steps are (1) transcript assembly, (2) cluster sequence contigs and construct complete de Bruijn graphs for each cluster, and (3) separate the de Bruijn graph to full length alternatively spliced isoforms or transcripts from paralogous genes. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT in this context?
a. The first two steps are memory intensive
b. The speed of the process is improved by a pre-processing step involving removal of redundant transcripts with no loss of accuracy
c. It is not possible to distinguish between alternatively spliced and paralogous transcripts
d. The last step can be parallelized to run on multiple processors
186. For Gene Set Enrichment Analysis (GSEA), differentially expressed genes are grouped into broader functions. A typical tool/resource used for this purpose is:
a. Gene Ontology
b. BLAST against the nr database
c. Pfam database
d. PRODOM database
187. Two types of pair-wise sequence alignment of the same hypothetical protein sequence fragments are illustrated in the figure below. Vertical bars between the sequences indicate the presence of identical amino acids. * symbols in Figure Y indicate residues not included in the alignment.
Which one of the following is correct?
a. Figures X and Y are examples of global and local sequence alignment, respectively.
b. Figures X and Y are examples of local and global sequence alignment, respectively.
c. Figures X and Y are examples of local sequence alignment.
d. Figures X and Y are examples of global sequence alignment.
188. Match the items in Group I with Group II with reference to a database search for identifying homologs of human hemoglobin.
Group I Group II
(P) Sensitivity (1) Measure of how many correct hits are found
(Q) 100% Sensitivity (2) Measure of how many hits found are correct
(R) Specificity (3) Measure indicating that all correct hits are found
(S) 100% Specificity (4) Measure indicating that all hits found are correct
a. P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
b. P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
c. P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
d. P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
189. The following phylogenetic tree of five sequences (A-E) indicates:
a. Pairing of A and B
b. Pairing of C and D
c. Pairing of A, E and D
d. No pairing of sequences
190. Genes or proteins that display the same activity, but have different origins and are the product of convergent evolution, are called:
191. Match the type of BLAST programs given in Group I to the particular type of sequence search task described in Group II
Group I Group II
1 tblastn P A nucleotide sequence is to be used as a query to search for similar proteins against a nucleotide database
3 blastx Q A nucleotide sequence is to be used as a query to search
4 blastn against a protein database
a. 2-P, 3-Q
b. 1-P, 3-Q
c. 4-P, 3-Q
d. 2-P, 1-Q
192. In a multiple sequence alignment of homologous protein sequences, a region of multiple insertions and deletions indicates the presence of:
a. a secondary structure element
b. a buried region in the protein
c. a surface random coil region
d. a motif
193. Two charged molecules are at a distance ‘r’ from each other. Which one of the
following is correct regarding the electrostatic interactions between them?
a. The interaction energy is proportional to r-1 and the force is proportional to r-2
b. The interaction energy is proportional to r and the force is proportional to r2
c. The interaction energy is proportional to r2 and the force is proportional to r-3
d. The interaction energy is proportional to r-3 and the force is proportional to r-2
194. The structure of two molecules P and Q with three atoms (u, v, w) each, are defined by coordinates given below.
The root mean square deviation between the two structures is:
195. A novel protein from a deep sea archae bacterium was identified and sequenced. The sequence is expected to be widely divergent from known sequences. Which scoring matrix will produce the most appropriate alignment in a search for homologs in the NCBI database?
196. The measured values of main chain torsion angles of a residue in a polypeptide has values (Φ=+50, Ψ=+60). What type of secondary structure is it most likely to be present in?
a. Left-handed α-helix
b. Right-handed α-helix
c. Type II β-turn
d. Parallel β-sheet
197. Which one of the following experimental methods is NOT used to determine threedimensional structures of biological macromolecules?
a. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
b. Fluorescence spectroscopy
c. X-ray crystallography
d. Cryo-Electron microscopy
198. Which one of the following is NOT an assumption of an evolutionary model of the PAM matrix?
a. Probability of a mutation at one position of a sequence is dependent on the identity of the amino acid
b. Probability of a mutation is dependent on the position of the mutation
c. Probability of a mutation is independent of the previous mutation at the position
d. Probability of a mutation is independent of the neighboring residues
199. Which one of the following is a valid assumption regarding the molecular clock hypothesis in evolution?
a. For a given protein sequence, mutations accumulate at a constant rate in all lineages
b. For a given protein sequence, mutation rates are different in different lineages
c. All proteins evolve at the same constant rate
d. For a given lineage, mutation rates are the same for all proteins
200. Which of the following is NOT true of protein folds?
a. Proteins assume a limited number of folds
b. Proteins with the same fold may perform different functions
c. Proteins with different folds can carry out the same function
d. A stable fold is a prerequisite for the function of all proteins